Indeterminate p24

[Concernicus]

So here is my story. I am a Male heterosexual. I had a low risk encounter with a female around 12 weeks ago. The female was not a sex worker and protection was used. I did however perform oral on the female. Three weeks after the encounter I became slightly ill and at the same time felt like I had slight symptoms of chlamydia. I took some amoxicillin I had around the house to fight the illness. A week later I realized I most like did have chlamydia and I went to the doctor. I told him to test me for everything. I did not have any discharge though (possibly because of the amoxicillin ) so he didn't test chlamydia. Everything was fine except for my HIV test came up indeterminate. Antibody test was reactive so a western blot was performed. It came back as p24 reactive. Primary care Dr informed me I most likely had early HIV infection and referred me to a specialist. Two weeks later I see the specialist he says I am most likely fine. He orders RNA test. I get a call a week later From the dr saying the lab performed the test wrong and the sample was not able to be tested. At 10 1/2 weeks I go back for more testing. He orders RNA testing. Instead They do antibody test and it comes up nonreactive so lab does no further testing. Dr calls me tells me results and again says I am most likely fine but to come see him Tuesday.

Long story short 3 weeks in. Swollen lymph nodes, fatigue. No fever or any other symptoms.4 weeks reactive antibody test /indeterminate reactive p24 western blot . 10.5 weeks HIV antibody test is non reactive. Lots of anxiety and loss of sleep. Would there ever be a reason for a person with HIV to have antibodies then they go away? Also condom did not break so I have no clue how I would have even got chlamydia. Any info or support would be appreciated.

[jkinatl2]

It certainly sounds like your doctor is on top of this situation. False positives do indeed happen, though they are (thankfully) rare.

However, reading your post carefully I do not see any risk factors for HIV as a condom was used when you had penetrative sex. Performing oral sex on a female is not considered even a remote HIV risk, thanks in large part of a series of studies on serodiscordant couples within the last fifteen years.

The couples in these studies (which lated ten, five and three years and took place in the US and Spain) wore condoms for penetrative vaginal and anal sex, yet no barriers at all for any form of oral sex. The result was zero infections traced to any oral pathway.

This presumes that your perceived "low risk" was cunnilingus, and that I did not miss an important piece of information.

If this is the case, then relax.  That's absolutely not how a person gets HIV. Saliva contains over a dozen identified elementes that actively inhibit HIV and render it inert. IN addition, the fluids encountered during cunnilingus are not infectious fluids, but lubricating fluids expressed by the Batholen's Gland. In an HIV positive female, infectious material is found in the very thick mucosa close to the cervix. It is not encountered by anythingshy of a penis and the mucosa does not migrate.

In short, I am terribly sorry you received a false positive (more accurate would be to call it an indeterminate result, but it's commonly called a false positive). I have every confidence your upcoming doctor visit will remove your lingering doubt.